A permeability of an antiferromagnetic along the spin axis is zero in T = 0 K as it is written in any handbook of magnetism. Why a magnetic field oriented along spin axis cannot reverse spins in the sublattice of an antiferromagnetic in T = 0 K? Because of strong antiferromagnetic coupling? But if the field is extremely strong and overcomes AFM coupling in energy. This question may be formulated in another form: could antiferromagnetic be completely saturated along the spin axis, if the magnetic field is not limited in T = 0 K? If could, the magnetic permeability should not be zero. Probably the aforementioned assumption is made under conditions which are not clearly indicated, like neglection of forced magnetization or anything else. This is not clear for me.

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