Hi all, I have conducted a research to see the cross-cultural differences for gender bias in recruitment. Data is collected through Qualtrics. Participants were randomly allocated to see either a company scenario going successful or going bad - and they selected a candidate out of two options. And they completed another likert scale survey about mindfulness. Then they answered the questions about the company's future in Likert scale.
My hypothesis was there is going to be a difference between UK and Canada population and gender bias will be correlated with mindfulness scores (i.e. those who chose male for successful company will be less mindful) irrespective of country of residence.
Here is how all things measured:
variable1: residence, 2 levels (UK, Canada)
variable2: gender, 2 levels (male, female)
--randomization happened here--- half of the participants read a company history going successful, the other half read a company history going bad.
variable3: candidate choice (female candidate, male candidate) - both groups saw the same candidates.
variable4: question asked "the company will be able to solve their problems in the future" - measured with Likert scale with 7 options
variable5: question asked "the company will be successful in 10 years" measured with Likert scale 1 being bankrupted, 10 being one of the most successful companies.
variable6: mindfulness, measured with Likert scale and scored as means of the scale (1-7).
I believe I have to run multinomial logistic regression as I have 3 IVs and categorical DV. But not sure if I can include mindfulness scale in this as it is an ordinal measurement - how should I go with the analysis?
Many thanks in advance!