I have picked the sentence from a published paper "...In F1 generation, days to 1st flower was controlled by over dominance while in F2 it was inherited additively......." . The study involves a diallel among early and late flowering genotypes. Can the above sentence be substantiated? Or is there something wrong with the interpretation? The paper ends with " Hybrid vigour can be exploited in the case of traits controlled by complete dominance and over dominance while in cases additive control pedigree selection might be fruitful for improvement of the crop. ". Well, this is known. But what if F1 and F2 differ with respect to gene action? Am I missing something here?

(I have deliberately not mentioned the source of the paper but the abstract is available online)

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