(a+b)^{p}=1 and a,b>0
It's an extension of the triangle inequality. I don't know if it has a special name. How is it proved?
I just found your inequality used for proving that the p-norm of a+b is bounded if a and b are. Here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minkowski_inequality.
The inequality doesn't seem to have a special name.
Thank you
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