What are all the potential reasons for "having a Pathogenic genetic variant in an apparently healthy Individual without showing any relevant/linked clinical features?"
Studies indicate that the penetration of pathogenic variants may be lower in the general population compared to target patients with a strong family history of certain diseases. It may be that people who do not have a strong family history of certain conditions may show incomplete penetration of pathogenic variants. In general, a lot of work needed to better understand genotype-phenotype associations and the penetrance of genetic variants. Kindly check the following RG links:
Article Prevalence of clinically actionable disease variants in exce...
Article Pathogenic variants in the healthy elderly: Unique ethical a...
Article Actionable, Pathogenic Incidental Findings in 1,000 Particip...
Also, kindly check the following link entitled (High likelihood of actionable pathogenic variant detection in breast cancer genes in women with very early-onset breast cancer)
https://jmg.bmj.com/content/early/2021/03/23/jmedgenet-2020-107347
In which the contribution of known breast cancer-associated genes to very early onset disease have been assessed.
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