Why do Phonons, the quanta of lattice vibrations, has spin of 0?
And what is meant by longitudinal or transverse Phonon?
Dr. Purohit
In the 60s the spin of transverse phonons in a isotropic elastic medium was calculated to be 1 instead of 0
The research article is:
Vonsovskii, S. V. and Svirskii, M. S. 1961. About the spin of phonons. Soviet Physics of the Solid State. 3:2160. In Russian
We have a thread on that question:
https://www.researchgate.net/post/Is_it_possible_to_quantize_the_elastic_field_longitudinal_transversal_by_its_respective_polarization_vector_U_in_an_anisotropic_crystal
Best Regards
Thankyou for sharing the article.
Kafes titreşimlerinde, atomların kafes sistemi kararlı olduğu için spin sabit ve dönme yönü sıfır olur. Bütün spinler örgü sisteminde bulunduğu yerin merkezi atomu konumunda, kararlı ve değeri 1'dir.
Most welcome, Prof. Dayakrishn Purohit
I guess is a classical work. Probably only in Russian language.
The Christopher Equation has at least 3 different ways of being solved for low symmetries in solids, one of them is in the polarization variables,
see please:
Article Christoffel equation in the polarization variables
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