How to interpret a situation in which, after taking into account the semi-partial or partial correlations, the direction of dependence changes (from -0.33 to +0.22)?
1. If all independent variables (IVs) were uncorrelated with each other, then part/partial correlation with the dependent variable (DV) will not differ from zero-order (ordinary, bivariate) correlation of each IV with DV.
2. Thus, if there is a discrepancy between the two, it is because of redundancy (multicollinearity) among the IVs. Excessive collinearity can cause other technical issues as well, including biased estimates of the regression coefficients.
A famous citation that discusses a small data set with huge multicollinearity (in an attempt to determine how satisfactorily software packages of the time were able to cope with same) is:
Longley, J. W. (1967). An appraisal of least squares programs from the point of the user. Journal of the American Statistical Association, 62, 819-841. doi:10.2307/2283673