It seems that your question is very intriguing. It is known that the sequence {log n} (n = 1, 2, …) is not uniformly distributed modulo 1 (see, e.g., Example 2.4 in https://math.rice.edu//~michael/teaching/426_Spr14/UDmod1A.pdf). On the other hand, by my knowledge, there is a Problem which asserts that there exists a rearrangement {log (f(n))} (n = 1, 2, …) (with a bijection f: {1, 2, ….} → {1, 2, ….}) of the sequence {log n} (n = 1, 2, …) which is uniformly distributed modulo 1. If f(n) = O(log n), then the sequence {f(n)/log n} (n = 1, 2, …) is bounded.
Fejér's Theorem (see, e.g., Corollary 2.1 on page 14 of the book: L. Kuipers and H. Niederreiter, Uniform Distribution of Sequences, John Wiley & Sons, 1974). Let f(x) be a function defined for x ≥ 1 that is differentiable for x ≥ x_0. If f '(x) tends monotonically to 0 as x → ∞ and if lim_(x → ∞) x| f'(x)| = ∞, then the sequence (f(n)), n = 1, 2,...is uniformly distributed modulo 1.
As an immediate consequence of Fejér's Theorem, we have the following result (see Example 2.7 on pages 14-15 of the above book).
The following types of sequences are uniformly distributed modulo 1:
(i) (anblogt n), n = 2, 3,..., with a ≠ 0, 0 < b < 1, and arbitrary t;
(ii) (a logt n), n = 1, 2,..., with a ≠ 0 and t > 1;
(iii) (an logt n), n = 2, 3,..., with a ≠ 0 and t < 0.