The "spooky" action at a distance phenomenon of entangled particles is well known. It also occurs "instantaneously," yet does not violate any laws concerning the maximum speed at which information can be transferred.

If this action occurs as if "speed" does not apply to it...or said differently... instantaneously then it's "speed" would be x units / 0 time, an undefined metric.

If this action occurs without regards to time, then how probable is it that it could actually be what we call time.

Furthermore,

In a theoretical 2 particle entangled system, Particle B always takes on the "anticorrelated" form of whichever property is measured of Particle A (particle A is measured first) once Particle A is measured and decoheres with some affinity from the system as a whole.

Information, in it's most empirical form is only derived out of there being a "difference" which is born out of a "sameness."

If all of existence was the same, how could one's certainty about any of this "sameness" change?

If all of existence was different from ...all of existence...., how could one's certainty about any of this "difference" change?

Thus, if entangled particles always acted in a correlated manner, as decoherence occurs throughout the environment when an entangled particle is measured, everything would be the same.

But the phenomenon affects the system in an anticorrelated manner.

Since particles can both have a sameness and a difference due to this phenomenon, information exists.

Therefore, not only would quantum entanglement dynamics = time, but also = "information," & information would = time.

Or am I wrong?

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