24 February 2015 11 1K Report

I need to justify interchanging a limit with a Riemann integral. The most frequently cited justification is that convergence associated with the limit is uniform. However, my applications cannot assume uniform convergence. Instead, a boundedness condition is given. I know how to prove the theorem but writing up a proof is not necessary if the theorem is already well known. I don't see it in my favorite text books so I don't know if it is well known.

The theorem is as follows. Consider a function H(x,t) and two open intervals (a,b) and (A,B). The function has four properties. The first is that it is bounded on (a,b)X(A,B). The second property is that for each t in (A,B), H(x,t) as a function of x is integrable on (a,b). The third property is that for each x in (a,b), H(x,t) as a function of t has a limit as t approaches A. The last property is that this limit, which is a function of x, is integrable on (a,b). The theorem states that the limit as t approaches A can be interchanged with integration in x from a to b. In other words, the limit of the integral is the integral of the limit. Is this theorem well known? Does it have a name?

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