Is there a known positive correlation between these two parameters? As far as I know, there's an increased dopamine receptor sensitivity in schizophrenic patients, which would explain their propensity to hallucinations and sensory disturbances.
In healthy individuals, would higher than 'baseline' dopamine receptor sensitivity and density imply a higher (and still clinically healthy) sensory awareness in terms of auditory, tactile, and olfactory sensations?