This is a general question about the relation between philosophy of science and social studies of science. Having worked for a while on the boundary between both fields, my impression is that hardly any connection exists between them. The usual explanation I get from scholars in both fields is that social studies of science are concerned with describing what science is (descriptive) and philosophy of science is concerned with why science works (normative).

Now my question is, hasn't this organic divide between both fields become obsolete as a result of recent trends in the evaluation of scientific research? Philosophers of science might claim to be conducting the "normative" study of science, but paradoxicaly it is the work in "descriptive" disciplines such as scientometrics that is today driving research policies worldwide. It seems that the normative discussions that matter today are being carried out no longer by philosophers in philosophy of science journals, but by statisticians in the methodological sections of their papers.

My impression is that philosophers tend to react to this in a patronizing way, uttering their general scepticism about the quality and relevance of scientometric data. But isn't that too easy, given that this data is de facto informing research policies worldwide? Shouldn't philosophers of science at least try to claim some of that ground? Because maybe, just maybe, policymakers are right in ignoring philosophers. I mean, would you trust doctors' normative advice about your health if you know those doctors are ignoring the largest available body of data about their field of expertise?

"Oh, but the statistical data about science is not relevant," I often hear. I'm afraid this kind of statement says more about the relevance of current philosophy of science than it says about scientometric data. I mean, why couldn't philosophers of science find a way to make that data relevant now that it's there anyway?

A reason why science is successful might lie not just with the truth of its statements or the methods used by its agents, but also with the evolution of its structure. If institutional economists like Douglass North can use the evolution of the structure of the economy to explain economic growth, why couldn't philosophers use the evolution of the structure of science to explain scientific progress? With the digitization of scientific research a generation of philosophers of science -for the first time ever!- can study the evolution of the structure of science and philosophize about its connection to scientific progress. It might be that there's no such connection, but how would we ever know this for sure without philosophers of science trying to operationalize existing theories of scientific progress? (for an example of this approach, see my paper "A comparison of two models of scientific progress")

So again my question: is it the case that this divide between the normative and descriptive study of science exists to this day, and isn't it time it came to an end? All opinions as well as pointers to relevant communities working on the edge of both disciplines would be much appreciated.

Article A comparison of two models of scientific progress

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