Is it correct to find the partial derivative between endogenous variables?
(For example, is it legitimate to take the partial derivative of the stock of human capital with respect to the stock of physical capital?)
If it is, are there any classic dynamic economics papers that deal with it in this way?
Yuval Arbel
Of course not. A partial derivative is defined as the change in the endogenous (dependent) variable with respect to the change in the exogenous (independent) variable.
2 votes
1 thanks
- Badges
- Science topic
- Similar topics
- Correction
More Yahui Li's questions See All
Similar questions and discussions