10 September 2019 2 8K Report

In his book [1] Bostrom's orthogonality thesis explanation state that it does not exclude irrational preferences. But in his instrumental thesis he states preferences that he qualifies as likely. What justification is possible for choosing some preferences over the other if irrationality is allowed? In other words, how can it be justified that there is a high probability of these preferences with a specific selection criteria that is highly reasonable given that in principle we have an irrational agent?

At least I would modify it to possible instead of likely

[1] Bostrom, N. (2014). Superintelligence: Paths, dangers, strategies.[Internet]. Superintelligence: Paths, dangers, strategies.

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