Seems like an easy question in skin toxicology. However, in regulatory toxicology, I cannot find an answer to this question: you can show that a skin irritant is inevitably an eye irritant, and I can't find any counterexample of non-eye irritant which nevertheless would be skin irritant (biologicaly, it is indeed not logic!). If someone has some piece of (regulatory) information for me about it, I will be glad to read it!
Haschek and Rousseaux’s Handbook of Toxicologic Pathology 3e, 2013. An excellent book to look up your question.
There are compounds, which are skin irritants and not labelled according the results of the eye irritation test, eg good lipid soluble compounds (eg some chlorinated aromatic compounds)
Tell me about the dose and exposure scenario; I'll tell you about the consequences.
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