I sincerely request all the experts working on schizophrenia to provide their valuable explanations/views on the above topic.
My concern is that PCP, MK-801, and ketamine are anesthetics, these drugs induced unconsciousness (sleep) whereas schizophrenia patients are hyperactive and do not sleep properly.
Dr. Khan, there is such a thing as dose dependence. The above drugs are aenesthetics at substantially higher doses than they are as dissociative hallucinogens. In any case, the NMDA model of schizophrenia is still a better one than that of amphetamine 'psychosis', which does not resemble schizophrenia at all. I anticipate there may be others who comment that the depressant effects of the above drugs resemble the negative or catatonic symptoms of schizophrenia, but that is too hand-wavy and speculative for me.
The fact is that you are right to be concerned! The idea that drugs (with a variety of systemic effects on multiple receptor systems) can be a good model for a complex brain disorder should be approached with much skepticism.
Thanks for the reply, yes I also feel the same way that PCP induced psychosis displays negative symptoms is very speculative.
Thanks Dr. Ana,
I have gone through the literature that you suggested. its very very informative.
I highly appreciate your compilation.
Regards
Mohammad
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