with df1 = 1 und df2 = 6. This blog suggests that a Cramer's V with df1 = 1 can be interpreted similarly to Pearson's r, do you agree?

http://www.real-statistics.com/chi-square-and-f-distributions/effect-size-chi-square/

If not, are you aware of any way how Cramer's V can be converted to r or d?

Thanks,

Paul

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