Is it always the case that the methylation level of a given gene promoter should be correlated with the level of its gene expression? Then we can say that methylation regulates its expression. In the absence of such a correlation, can we even assume that methylation of such a gene promoter may regulate its gene expression?
Hi Robert,
I think it is more complicated. Even if there is a correlation, without further data, I would not see this as a proof of DNA methylation based gene regulation. However, it is likely true because of the accepted and well known mechanism (at least for the methylation of a larger region/an complete CpG island). In the other scenario both can be true: (i) the gene is not regulated by the observed methylation or (ii) the gene is regulated by methylation but under the specific circumstances the regulation is not detectable. e.g.: you detect hypermethylation in some samples but the gene is low expressed in all samples => only after an activation of the gene (by treatment, stimulation.. etc) differences will be observed in the gene expression level. Moreover, there are different "principles" of gene regulation by DNA methylation known. As mentioned, the hypermethylaion of an promoter CpG island is usually associated with a repressed state but methylation of other genomic regions (3´ UTR, gene body etc...) or the methylation of specific CpG sites (transcription factor binding!) can be associated with a gene activation.
Best,
Norman
you can try this reference
METHYLATION OF P16 GENE DURING GASTRIC CARCINOGENESIS IN ASSOCIATION WITH HELICOBACTER PYLORI INFECTION
Int J Pharm Bio Sci 2017 Jan ; 8(1): (B) 603-60
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