When measuring the convective heat transfer coefficient inside a duct, one normally induces heat on a surface, and measures the temperature change at the wall of the surface compared to the bulk fluid temperature, thereby obtaining heat transfer coefficient.

I am curious about a certain situation when the bulk temperature of a fluid (liquid) is at saturated condition, say, 100C for water. In this situation, if I were to measure single-phase convective heat transfer coefficient by applying an appropriate heat that does not induce phase change (boiling), is the measured heat transfer coefficient same to the one that I would obtain at a subcooled condition? (assuming temperature-independent properties) Wouldn't the latent heat (of vaporization) affect the temperature change?

Or is this situation unacceptable to view as a genuine "single-phase" heat transfer experiment because latent heat is involved?

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