Hi all,
I am running a partial correlation analysis on mood data. I want to see if there is a correlation between scores on a novel hypomanic mood scale and existing measures of hypomania - the Mood Disorder Questionnaire and Hypomanic Personality Scale-6, respectively, while controlling for BDI (depression inventory) and STAI-T (trait anxiety measure) scores. If it helps, we have data from 182 participants with no missing data points.
I have done a preliminary analysis to test for parametric assumptions - the data is non-normally distributed. It does not meet parametric assumptions. And from scatterplots, it is also non-monotonic.
Is it still ok to run a spearman's correlation in this case? I have found contradictory evidence online e.g. the advice on the SPSS website is that an assumption of Spearman's correlation is that the relationships between our variables are monotonic. They are not at all, even after ranking the data it still looks random/no relationship.
Any help would be much appreciated! Thanks!