I have recently read the definition ''non-polar'' atom in a paper and wanted to ask if it's correct because I thought polarity is used to explain a consequence of the interactions among atoms.
Atoms are non-polar since they do not have a permanent dipole (or higher multipole) moment. They are, however, polarizable, which means that they can acquire a dipole moment in an external field. This polarizability is the source of the so-called London dispersion force between atoms.
I agree very much with Prof. Gert Van der Zwan. Atom itself is neutral and has no permanent diople moment. However, according London dispersion forces between atoms it give non permanant polarizability.