Dear colleagues and other scholars,
I'm a psychiatry resident currently working on a review about BPSD management. However, one thing I haven't understood is: "Why is it that researcher and clinicians group BPSD as if it was a single entity?"
Given the varied symptoms of BPSD, is it logical to group it as a single syndrome just because it's happening along with dementia? Or does it have a well-established psychopathology to justify the grouping?
Does anyone have a good reference regarding this issue?
BPSD are a group of symptoms often discussed together.
These symptoms are consistently associated with DEMENTIA. Commonly responds to antidementia medications or SSRIs or antipsychotic medications. Often seen in clusters. Hence, they should be clubbed together.
@michael uebel: I agree that diagnostic and treatment should not be confused. However, there are many articles titled "Effect of treatment X on BPSD." Given that each symptom does not consistently appear in every kind of dementia, are you suggesting that the grouping is not a good idea?
@Sujita Kumar Kar: Is there any evidence that they consistently co-occur? Even a correlation is OK, but something like factor analysis or pathological basis is preferred (most references cite varying pathological mechanism, so I'm not sure if there is a good foundation on the mechanism) .
I just saw your question from quite a while ago, so I'm not sure if it's still relevant but others might find the information useful as well...
There is good evidence the BPSDs co-occur. In the paper attached, we showed a high degree of BPSD comorbidity in a representative sample of PwD living in residential care (in Australia).
While all BPSDs do not occur in all forms of dementia, some form of BPSD is common in most forms of dementia. BPSD are grouped together because they are associated with damage to the brain (and deficits associated with this) and they can often be treated in similar ways, which often differ from the way the condition would be treated in a person without dementia.
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