THE FOLLOWING ARGUMENT ATTRACTS THE MINDS OF COSMOLOGISTS AND PHILOSOPHERS ALIKE:
There is a natural question, based on any valid form of reasoning, to be answered by anyone who reflects of the cosmos in a general way. If every finite part of the cosmos is existent from the past eternity proper of each, meaning it was not created (and of course continues to exist into the future), then either (1) each should have had a totality of infinite amounts of individually finite (even if not individualized by our minds) causal effects (however finite their actual remainders in the entity are) from an infinite number of other cosmic parts in the past, or (2) each should have had only a finite amount of individually finite causal effects from a finite number and amount of other cosmic parts in the past.
Case (1) above contradicts itself, since an infinite amount of individually causal effects (however meagre and hence finite in their totality) upon any one finite-content part of the cosmos implies past causal contacts already had in the past from infinite distances (and works against any solution to the Gravitational Coalescence Paradox of GCC type, which see in my [2018]), because this sort of causal influence from an infinite distance is totally untenable. It is untenable because, any causal influence from the causal past proper of any entity (even of a whole universe in an infinite-content cosmos) is in fact from a finitely measurable distance. Secondly, case (2) reduces the finite parts of the cosmos into something of finite-past origin. These two together necessitate a finite past behind every finite-content part of the cosmos.
For the reasons in the above two paragraphs, God cannot include or be merely parallel in existence to the cosmos. God can only create it continuously, infinitely, and eternally, and be connected infinitely with Itself and the cosmos; but the cosmos can only connect itself finitely with God, which process can at the most grow and never make it form part of God. This is the essence of IP.
I have given more clarity to the lead-text above. One important paragraph there is this:
Case (1) above contradicts itself, since an infinite amount of individually causal effects (however meagre and hence finite in their totality) upon any one finite-content part of the cosmos implies past causal contacts already had in the past from infinite distances (and works against any solution to the Gravitational Coalescence Paradox of GCC type, which see in my [2018]), because this sort of causal influence from an infinite distance is totally untenable. It is untenable because, any causal influence from the causal past proper of any entity (even of a whole universe in an infinite-content cosmos) is in fact from a finitely measurable distance. Secondly, case (2) reduces the finite parts of the cosmos into something of finite-past origin. These two together necessitate a finite past behind every finite-content part of the cosmos.
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