This of course is, arguably, the seminal problem -- does P=NP?  If one accepts counterfactual definetiveness in QM (and CT as true, of course), then the problem takes on a whole new dimension from the persepctive of Bell's Theorem -- perhaps, even more interestingly, different conclusions suggest themselves depending on whether inhomogeneous (IBI) and homogeneous (HBI) Bell inequalities are considered.  The epistemic, metaphysical, and foundational repurcussions of such an analysis may well prove especially profound. In this regard, how would an affirmative or negative answer to P = NP reflect on the schism between classical physics and QM that Bell's Theorem seems to suggest?

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