when we use equivalent linearization technique , we are putting the damping ratio part of tlcd/mrtlcd as Sid.. since the damping ratio(Sid) can range only from 1-100%, for a particular frequency and mass ratio it gives maximum percentage reduction at a particular damping ratio.. So whether it is tlcd/mrtlcd, this damping ratio is same right?so the percentage of reduction will also be the same..In the formulation where is the difference happening?? please answer to this doubt ..
- Badges
- Science topic
More Reseem Hameed's questions See All
Similar questions and discussions