I’m currently doing research investigating endogenously generated whole body vibrations. Firstly, I would like to prove that vibration can be detected on the skeletal system (using accelerometer) during vocalization (voice recorder) and I need to prove that the skeletal vibration is indeed coming from the vocal cord/tract. My supervisor had suggested I do FFT of both signals (voice and vibration) and compare their fundamental and harmonic signatures. I have since noted that LPC with formant analysis appeared to be the standard in voice analysis. I also thought that I could gain more information using LPC; i.e comparing voice/voiceless phonemes, able to determine which voice components are better transmitted and etc. I understand that FFT and LPC has different mathematical algorithm hence giving rise to different sets of deconvoluted frequencies. For example, analysis of a short 320ms /a/ phoneme gave the following; FFT: F0 134.3 Hz, H1 266.2 Hz, H2 398.8 Hz and H3 529.3 Hz versus LPC: F0 132.77 Hz, F1 452.3 Hz, F2 1391.2 Hz and F3 2390 Hz.
What I am puzzle is that both claim the same thing. THAT THE COMPOSITE WAVEFORM /a/ IS THE COMBINATION OR CONVOLUTION OF CONSITUENT WAVEFORMS WITH THE DERIVED FREQUENCIES. How two sets of waves with vastly different frequency values convolute into the same product. Which one is more accurate? I wonder if anyone could point out to me, where did I go wrong. Thanks.