In the expression of the fractional derivative, if terminals are reversed, that it is like a simple integral, add a minus sign or there is a difference or something to take into consideration.
Vladimir Kobelev
Look on the Eq(3) of http://www2.math.uu.se/research/pub/Munkhammar.pdf.
The terminals have different meaning, as follows form the definition of the integral.
The topic is also explained in the book of Miller and Ross on Riemann-Liouville fractional derivatives.
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Praveen Agarwal
Please see the following link:
http://optica.mty.itesm.mx/pmog/Papers/P094.pdf
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