What happens if we reverse the terminals of Riemann-Liouville fractional derivatives?

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Vladimir Kobelev

Look on the Eq(3) of http://www2.math.uu.se/research/pub/Munkhammar.pdf.

The terminals have different meaning, as follows form the definition of the integral.

The topic is also explained in the book of Miller and Ross on Riemann-Liouville fractional derivatives.

Praveen Agarwal

Please see the following link:

http://optica.mty.itesm.mx/pmog/Papers/P094.pdf