Fischer and Schwartz (2011) found more consensus (than disagreement) on values across countries. Kirkman, Lowe and Gibson (2016) claim that a relatively limited part of the overall variation in cultural values resides between countries, and over than 80% resides within countries. Beugelsdijk, Kostova and Roth (2016) proposes that researchers should use the interaction between country level cultural variables (e.g. Hofstede scores) and cultural tightness to correct for the degree of consensus in a country. Given above, I have two questions: 1) Is it still legitimate to use country level cultural scores as explanatory variables? 2) What about personal traits and attitudes, for example, what about the level of happiness?

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