While technically it holds in both sub-domains of physics (CM and QM), there might be a special case that it does not. Here's the argument agaist it being an absolute truth :
** Witten' s non uniform Universal wf (uwf) hypothesis : if one accepts the universal wavefunction exists, them while the universal Wf (the law) gives states, in an isolated or special region of the universe, and these states adopt to the law (uwf), an observer in the isolated universe will perceived these states as laws because they are the sub-states of that universe'region that dictate or subordinate all development akin to a law.
He doesn't know the form of the uwf so he assumes his local laws (I. E his classical mechanics laws) adopt to this state, which he doesn’t probably know it is just a state of the uwf, because he believes the uwf is uniform.
Do you endorse it as a valid one??
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