Your concern might not be answer as Yes or No. However, I've attached a link of a paper that may help in your idea.

On the other hand, there is always need to understand the Monetary System of a particular country. If I say Yes to your answer as per policy, that doesn’t accurately reflect reality in the context of Bangladesh.

Conversely, if you look other way around; do government deficits equal private surpluses? Than Yes, it is. On in other word, the private sector’s balance is equal to the public sector’s balance.

Cheers.

http://www.bis.org/publ/qtrpdf/r_qt1303h.pdf

https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=1905625

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No.  Firms can borrow for any number of reasons; eg, pay dividends, meet a payroll, etc.

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Economically...YES but not financially. It is not equal but equavalent. Creditor only need the payment+interest (or profit...whatever you called it) but investor need the business profit as long as the investment stays in the business.

Thank you.

It is one of the good concern towards the private sectors in a country.

One thing has to be clearly understood before proceeding to research towards this given question.

Business related activities and Non- Business related activities are two main things that puts forth the divisions to take it an investment or not.

Business related activities inflow and outflow of cash doesn't constitute towards investment. Example: Buying Land by Real estate enterprise doesn't constitute investment for the enterprise itself.

Investments for an enterprise refers to those cash outflow other than that of normal course business activity. I propose to re-consider the fore-said question as it doesn't relate to any investment when it some to credits from banks to any sector.

This could be re-framed as "Public Banks loans/credits to private sector/enterprise equals to investment/securitization towards public?"

I think I have answered the question raised by you and it would help you further.

All the Best.

Thank you all.