Hello folks,
I am studying the petrogenetic evolution of a polymetamorphic highly fractionated I-type granite. Geochemical and petrographical studies revealed two different varieties of this orthogneiss, namely a metaluminous (ASI 0.9-1.0) mafic variety and a weakly peraluminous (ASI 1.0-1.1) leucocratic variety. Rayleigh fractionation modelling argue for a derivation of the leucocratic orthogneiss through fractional crystallization from the melanocratic orthogneiss. Peraluminous (ASI 1.1) aplites represent the highest evolved member of this series.
My problem is, how do I explain this trend? So far I havent observed hornblende in the melanocratic gneiss, which would shift the composition of the residual melt towards peraluminous composition if fractionated. Generally, biotite is the only mafic mineral in these metagranitoids. The model of Chappell et al. (2012) in which a metaluminous I-type granite is produced through higher degrees of partial melting of a Cpx-rich source (e.g. basalt, andesite) is not favoured by the negative epsilon Hf values of zircons in both orthogneisses indicating a crustal protolith. Assimilation of crustal material could be a further explanation, but yet I dont see any evidence for that in my geochemical data.
Is it possible to make a metaluminous residual solid (cumulates) through fractional crystallization of a peraluminous melt? Do you have any other ideas to explain the transition of metaluminous to peraluminous composition of an I-type granite?
tyvm
Michael