when two different plant species are examined separately for the same pharmacologic effect in preclinical screening studies, they do produce significant effect for a certain pharmacological activity. Whereas the natural hybrid of another plant derived from the two plants produce no effect.
what is the possible explanation?
It coulb be as a result of antagonistic effects between the two pharmacological activities of the two plant species
I think it is just the vagueries of plant breeding. The next hybrid between the two, could have the chemical profile of both parent species or just one parent, or have a completely different set of chemicals. Check out Mendel's experiments with plant of the same species.
The genes responsible for the pharmacological effect is still present with in the DNA but dorment. If you again hybrid the plant in question with another plant or one of their parent plant. The effect can be restored. But as you said this is natural hybridization it could be linked to natural selection process, which nulified the effect .
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