In the document entitled "Highlights of changes from DSM-IV-TR to DSM-5" it says for social anxiety disorder

"A more significant change is that the “generalized” specifier has been deleted and replaced with a “performance only” specifier. The DSM-IV generalized specifier was problematic in that “fears include most social situations” was difficult to operationalize. Individuals who fear only performance situations (i.e., speakingor performing in front of an audience) appear to represent a distinct subset of social anxiety disorder in terms of etiology, age at onset, physiological response, and treatment response."

First, does anyone know what makes these individuals a "distict subset of SAD" especially in terms of physiological response.

Second, does anyone know the empirical evidence that supports this distinction (especially for physiological response)?

Third, does "physiological response" refer to self-perceived bodily sensations and/or actual physiological parameters (central/peripheral)?

Thanks!

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