I had a student in my ethics class pose a question to which I do not know the answer. In searching my memory I cannot recall anyplace where Aristotle engages the issue he raised. Whereas Kant thinks that a moral action has greater value if it is done out of duty and contrary to inclination or disposition, e.g. the man who stays alive though he wants to die, purely because he knows it to be his duty to do so, Aristotle does not, to my recollection, place any weight on working against inclination or disposition. In fact, it seems to me that the notion of "habituation in virtue" tends to minimize original inclinations prior to such habituation. Am I forgetting something in Aristotle, or is this a nonissue for him?

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