For me, Shakespeare's world did not inhabit any such bias, he dealt with specific social, human, interpersonal and personal problems and these loomed large; their outworking in his works was also complex. In most of his works, it was clear that men and women were villains, and he so depicted them, Macbeth, Anthony and Cleopatra etc. The biases in his works were the social biases of his day and his portrayals particularly because they were based mainly on the ruling elite's life conflicts depicted the social order and cultural environment of his time as they were. He queried a few hegemonies though (The Tempest). He was not a utopian artist and as such grounded his works on the existent social relations of his day.

Shakespeare likely wouldn't quite be a feminist in the modern sense, but here are a couple of articles that argue that he was a feminist nonetheless:

• https://graziadaily.co.uk/life/london/shakespeare-feminist/
• https://dc.cod.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?referer=https://www.google.com.au/&httpsredir=1&article=1197&context=essai

Thank you very much

Dear Esma Biroglu Karl Pfeifer

There is no question that Shakespeare could be a misogynist. He loved women from all walks of life. A recent publication showed that he even had a black mistress! I think one has to distinguish the writer's persona from the historical figure who had a private life and intimate convictions.

Now, it is true that most of his works contain a varying combination of courtly love (Romeo and Juliet for instance), phallogocentric bias (The Taming of the Shrew, Othello, Titus Andronicus) but also admiration for female cunning and grace (Sonnet 18, among others).

Hoping that may be of help

Best wishes

thanks a lot for the perfect answer. Hoping to hear a lot from you.

For me, Shakespeare's world did not inhabit any such bias, he dealt with specific social, human, interpersonal and personal problems and these loomed large; their outworking in his works was also complex. In most of his works, it was clear that men and women were villains, and he so depicted them, Macbeth, Anthony and Cleopatra etc. The biases in his works were the social biases of his day and his portrayals particularly because they were based mainly on the ruling elite's life conflicts depicted the social order and cultural environment of his time as they were. He queried a few hegemonies though (The Tempest). He was not a utopian artist and as such grounded his works on the existent social relations of his day.

Thank you very much

I have read that there was an upsurge about midway through the reign of Queen Elizabeth I (about 1580), when women began to struggle against their traditional subordinate status. So, Shakespeare (1564-1616) could have been exposed to feminist ideas. He wasn't a feminist if you think about how female parts were played by male actors. There doesn't seem to be any evidence that he broke the gender norm by having women perform on his stage!

Thank you very much Dear Catherine Stanford

@ Catherine Stanford

RE: He wasn't a feminist if you think about how female parts were played by male actors. There doesn't seem to be any evidence that he broke the gender norm by having women perform on his stage!

It was against the law at the time!

http://www.bardstage.org/globe-theatre-female-roles.htm

Thank you very much@ Karl Pfeifer

From his plays, his representation of women would qualify him to be considered a feminist.