The results of the regression between agricultural FDI (dependant variable) in Egypt and deposits of economic sectors as one of the independent variables in the model point to a statically negative sign, how does this make sense? although it supposed that the more savings the more investment, or this works only on the level of local investors?.

Given that my primarily explanation in case of Egypt, that the relatively high interest rate (12.68% -one year- in average during the last decade) does not encourage investment nevertheless the increased deposits in banks.

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