I used a hierarchical regression to see whether optimism predicted perceived stress while controlling for social desirability. The result was non-significant, and the relationship was weakly positive. However in the correlation, the relationship between the two variables is negative, and when I conducted a standard regression without controlling for social desirability, the relationship was also positive. Might this change in the direction of the relationship be due to controlling for social desirability? If so, would using the correlation to demonstrate this be sufficient, or would I need to include the results of the standard regression too?
Thank you.