If x and y variables has near to zero correlation, is there any assumption guiding/suggesting not to administer regression on these variables?

I have a variable x (a subscale of my IV scale i.e., sexual abuse by mothers) and three variables i.e., y1, y2, y3 & y4 (DV and its three sub scales i.e, behavioral problems, Internalizing...

12 December 2017 2,290 0 View