Is it just at the act of observation that the values of a variable (or its probability) that is being nonlocal while the "undisturbed" dynamics of the quantum particle is the one that obeys Lorentz Invariancy?
Non-relativistic quantum mechanics is not Lorentz invariant, that's all. Relativistic quantum mechanics is a local theory and is Lorentz invariant. In general, however, while non-relativistic quantum mechanics describes a single particle, relativistic quantum mechanics describes an indefinite number of particles (unless it's integrable, which means any interaction is a coordinate artifact).
However the real point is that non-relativistic quantum mechanics describes states that do not possess a classical limit. Those states are most involved in the non-local properties.
J. A. Q. Abanto wrote: Is it just at the act of observation that the values of a variable (or its probability) that is being nonlocal while the "undisturbed" dynamics of the quantum particle is the one that obeys Lorentz Invariancy?
Why and How Quantum Mechanics being nonlocal while Lorentz Invariant?
Such that possible for example by nonlocal QFT.
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